Hi Smitty, I'll have to search for them too ...
Don't knock yourself out. It makes perfect sense because it does satisfy Faraday's Law - a magnetic field in a state of change over time (the vibrating magetized string) will induce a current in a conductor exposed to that magnetic field (the coil). I was more curious about the particulars of the experiment, as in how strong of a magnetic field was induced into the string for the experiment. Enjoy your weekend and don't bother hunting for obscure articles on the interwebs!
However, in a regular guitar pickup, I'm not convinced that ONLY the magnetized portion of string above the coil is responsible for the current flow in the coil.
(BTW, I'm not trying to put words in your mouth...please, correct me if I characterize your statements inaccurately).
Anyway, the reason I say this is that when two magnetic bodies approach each other, as their respective magnetic fields impinge, the magnetic lines of flux of both magnets (or magnetized bodies) will be distorted accordingly. (I read a research paper from Harvard that discussed this, but, like you...I can't find it!). So, it seems inevitable that as the magnetized portion of string vibrates within the magnetic field of the permanent magnet/pieces, that the magnetic flux of the permanent magnet/pole pieces must be distorted, as well. Hence, the current induced within the coil will be a product of both mechanisms - the magnetized string itself, and the resultant flux distortion of the pickup's magnet/pole pieces.
My head hurts, now!
At the end of the day, I guess all this is really just forum-cud to chew on. We're still gonna choose our pickups based on how they sound in our guitars, regardless of how that sound gets produced.
It's time for another cup of coffee!!!
Oh, and the music store emailed me...my new picks are in.
Yay!
Last edited:
